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Thursday, 26 June 2014

Antenna-Theory and Practice-Model question paper for Electronics and Communication Engineering

1(a) Define the terms power density and radiation intensity. (4 Marks)
(b) Derive an expression for electric field of electric current element whose current varies arbitrarily with time. (6 Marks)
(c) Show that when the relaxation time for a material is little as compared to the period of the time-harmonic field, the displacement current may be neglected in comparison with the conduction current. (6 Marks)
(d) A sheet of glass having a relative dielectric constant of 8 and negligible conductivity is coated with a silver plate. Show that at a frequency of 100 MHz, the surface impedance will be less for a 0.001 cm coating than for a 0.002 cm coating. (4 Marks)
2(a) Write a detailed note on current distribution on the cylindrical conducting antenna. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a note on bioconical antenna. (4 Marks)
(c) Derive the array factor of a bionomial array of 7 isotropic point sources. (4 Marks)
(d) Assume that the current distribution on a 3/4(wavelength) thin layer antenna is sinusoidal. Calculate and plot the radiation pattern in the plane of the antenna. (6 Marks) 
3(a) If a small square loop is considered equivalent to 4 short dipoles, calculate the far-field pattern. Show that the pattern in the loop is a circle. (8 Marks)
(b) Explain terminal impedance of Helix. (4 Marks)
(c) A helix has 8 turns. The diameter is 2.5 cm. The turn spacing is 15 cm. Assume increased directivity and calculate the phase velocity. Calculate the field pattern at 600 Mc and plot the pattern, (8 Marks)
4(a) Explain Babinets' principle. (6 Marks)
(b) Write a note on slot arrays on waveguides. (6 Marks)
(c)What are the dimensions of a slot antenna whose terminal impedance is (70+j0) ohms? The slot is open on both sides. ( 8 Marks)
5(a) Write a note on different type of Horns. (6 Marks)
(b) For the parabolic cylinder, the line source is isotropic in a plane perpendicular to its axis. Explain. (8 Marks)
(d) Calculate the gain of the horn antenna of length l = 12 cms, a = 12 cms and b varying between 5 and 10 cms in steps of 1 cm. Plot gain versus b. (6 Marks)
6(a) Write notes on delay lens and Lubeburg lens. (4 Marks)
(b) Solve the electromagnetic boundary-value problem of a dielectric sphere embedded in free-space and derive the characteristic equation. (8 Marks)
(c) What are self-complementary log-periodic antennas? (4 Marks)
(d) Write some important features of Dolph-Chebyshev optimization method. (4 Marks)
7(a) What are radomes? (4 Marks)
(b) Write a note on antennas used for medical applications. (6 Marks)
(c) What is a Smith Chart? Why it is used? (4 Marks)
(d) Explain reciprocity theorem for antennas. (6 Marks)
8 (a) What is free-space transmission ratio? Explain. (4 Marks)
(b) Write a note on formation of ducts and mode theory of duct propagation. (6 Marks)
(c) Discuss the different causes of attenuation and fading in tropospheric propagation. (6 Marks)
(d) An electromagnetic wave of frequency 12.73 kHz is incident in the F-layer at an angle of 45 degrees which is equal to the critical frequency of the layer. Calculate the MUF and skip distance. (4 Marks)




Sunday, 22 June 2014

Metrology&Measurement- Model question paper for B.E/B.Tech Mechanical Engineering

1(a) Distinguish between 'line standards' and 'end standards'. How are the end standards derived from line standards? (6 Marks)
(b) What is the accuracy of a vernier height gauge? Explain. (4 Marks)
(c) Sketch different types of anvils used in micrometers along with their applications. (6 Marks)
(d) A test indicator is used to check the concentricity of a shaft but its stylus is so set that its movement makes an angle of 350 with the normal to the shaft.  If the total indicator reading is 0.02 mm, calculate the true eccentricity. (4 Marks)
2(a) Explain the importance of reference planes in engineering measurement. (4 Marks)
(b) Describe the optical test for squareness with the help of a neat sketch. (6 Marks)
(c) Explain how an autocollimator can be used for straightness measurement. (6 Marks)
(d) Name the various instruments required for performing the alignment tests on machine tools. (4 Marks)
3(a) Explain with a neat diagram, the essential conditions of interference and clearance. (6 Marks)
(b) Draw the sketch of a progressive-type solid plug gauge and discuss the advantages and limitations of this type of gauging. (6 Marks)
(c) Describe some precautions to be taken in prescribing the accuracy of a limit gauge. (4 Marks)
(d) Design a suitable limit gauge confirming to Taylor's principle for checking 60H7 square hole that is 25mm wide. (4 Marks)
4(a)  Explain the construction and use of a vernier and optical bevel protector. (6 Marks)
(b) Describe the principle of an angle-dekkor and mention its various uses. (6 Marks)
(c)  Describe optical flats along with their types. (4 Marks)
(d) A 1.5 mm surface is being measured on an interferometer. A lamp is used which emits wavelength as follows: Red-842 nm, Blue-662.8 nm. Calculate the nominal fractions expected for the gauge for the two wavelengths. (4 Marks)
5(a) Describe the essential characteristics of a good comparator. (4 Marks)
(b) Explain the basic methods of magnifications and explain any one in detail by drawing its sketch. (8 Marks)
(c) Discuss the consequences of not specifying the sampling length in surface-roughness measurement. (4 Marks)
(d) Write a short note on grades for specifying the surface texture. (4 Marks)
6(a) What is best-size wire? Calculate the diameter of the best wire for an M 20 x 25 screw. (4 Marks)
(b) Explain gear tooth profile measurement using an involute measuring machine. (6 Marks)
(c) Describe how rollers, balls and slip gauges can be used to measure a taper plug gauge and taper ring gauge. (6 Marks)
(d) When  measuring the major diameter of an external screw thread gauge, a 35 mm diameter cylindrical standard was used. The micrometer readings over a standard gauge were 9.3768 mm and 11.8768 mm respectively. Calculate the thread-gauge major diameter. (4 Marks)
7(a) Explain the concept of adaptive machining combined with inspection system. (4Marks)
(b) Define drift and explain its types. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain with the help of a neat sketch, how a Linear Variable Differential Transformer (LVDT) is used for displacement measurement. State its advantages and limitations. (8 Marks)
(d) Explain the use of a slip ring for measuring torque. (4 Marks)
8(a) Explain how the stroboscope can play the role of the instrument to be used for vibration measurement. (4 Marks)
(b) Write short notes on Bourdon tube and pyrometry. (6 Marks)
(c) Discuss the characteristics of quarter-bridge strain-gauge sensors. (4 Marks)
(d) Explain any one positive displacement flowmeter in detail using a sketch. (6 Marks)

Wednesday, 18 June 2014

Mechanical system design-Model question paper for B.E/B.Tech Mechanical Engineering


1(a) What are the elements of a system? Explain briefly. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain about the environment in which the problem is formulated. (6 Marks)
(c) Discuss the hierarchical nature of engineering problems. Explain the “need statement”. (8 Marks)
2(a) Explain the purpose, scope and applicability of System Development Life Cycle. (8 Marks)
(b) What is system documentation? Explain. (4 Marks)
(c) Differentiate between physical and mathematical model. (4 Marks)
(d) Briefly explain the need for modeling. (4 Marks)
3(a) What is the necessity of mathematical formulation in system design? (6 Marks)
(b) What is the difference between AON and AOA in network convention? (4 Marks)
(c) What are the basic characteristics of a linear programming problem?(4 Marks)
(d) Solve the LPP by big M method:
Min.z = 2x1+5x2
Subject to constraints
x1+x2=100
x1≤40
x2≤30
x1,x2≥0 (6 Marks)
4(a) List out different engineering optimization applications. (6 Marks)
(b) Maximize the profit for the following function 20x1+36x2+4x1x2-4x12-3x22
Where x1 is the labour cost and x2 the item cost. (6 Marks)
(c) What are the stages of evaluation? Explain with practical example. (8 Marks)
5 (a) Discuss the steps in decision making. (6 Marks)
(b) Explain EMV and decision theory. (6 Marks)
(c) An investor has two independent options A and B, but he lacks the capital to undertake both of them simultaneously. He may choose option A first and if A is successful, then he may go for option B and Vice versa, The probability pf success for A is 65% while for B it is 45%. The initial investment required for both is of Rs2500, and both return nothing if the venture is unsuccessful. Successful completion of A will return Rs 4500 (over cost) and successful completion of B will return Rs.6500 (over cost). Find the best strategy and make the decision tree for the investor. (8 Marks)
6 (a) What is reliability? Discuss various reliability models used in practice for maintenance of equipment. (6 Marks)
(b) Briefly discuss the sources from where reliability data can be obtained. (4 Marks)
(c) Why does the failure pattern of equipment not remain uniform throughout its life? Explain. (6 Marks)
(d) A system consists of four components connected in series with failure rates of 0.75, 1, 0.1 and 0.1. Compute the probability of their failure after six months. (4 Marks)
7 (a) What are the stimulation models? Explain. (6 Marks)
(b) What is the importance of system concepts in project planning? (6 Marks)
(c) Customers arrived at ticket counter for the required service. Assume that inter arrival and service times are constant and given by 1.6 and 3.8 time units respectively. Simulate the system for 14 time units. What is the average waiting time per customer? What is the percentage idle time of the facility? Assume that the system starts at t = 0. (8 Marks)
8 (a) Discuss the principle and advantages of group technology coding. (6 Marks)
(b) Discuss the relevance of FMS from the point of view of work centre utilization. (4 Marks)
(c) What are the barriers to Concurrent Engineering? (4 Marks)
(d) What are the techniques of Quality Function Deployment (QFD)? (6 Marks)

Tuesday, 17 June 2014

Automotive engines-Model question paper for B.E/B.Tech Mechanical Engineering


1(a) How does a 2-stroke cycle engine differ from a four-stroke cycle engine? (6 Marks)
(b) What is the advantage in keeping the exhaust valves and inlet valves open at the same time? (4 Marks)
(c) Explain briefly the working of an automobile gas turbine with a diagram. (6 Marks)
(d) Explain Liquefied Petroleum Gas. Mention some advantages of using this in spark-ignition engines. (4 Marks)
2 (a) What is a splayed crankpin? Draw the crankshaft with splayed crankpins for a V-8 engine. (6 Marks)
(b) Describe the procedure to adjust valve clearance in the I-head engine. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain the method to minimize the crankshaft torsional vibration. (4 Marks)
(d) Explain the function of a vibration damper with a sketch. (6 Marks)
3(a) What are the products of combustion for gasoline? How are they produced? (8 Marks)
(b) Explain the phenomena of knock in a spark-ignition engine. (4 Marks)
(c) Describe how pre-ignition differs from detonation. (4 Marks)
(d) What are the various factors that influence the flame speed? (4 Marks)
4 (a) What are the various types of mufflers? Explain a combined resonance and absorber type muffler with a diagram. (8 Marks)
(b) How is the speed of the engine controlled by the throttle? (4 Marks)
(c) Draw neatly the lay-out for the fuel feed system of an automobile and name its various parts. (4 Marks)
(d) What are the functions of the inlet manifold and the exhaust manifold in an automotive engine? (4 Marks)
5 (a) What is the purpose of the control rod? How does it vary the fuel supply to the injector? (6 Marks)
(b) Explain the working of a primary and a secondary diesel fuel filter. Describe any filter of each type. (6 Marks)
(c) Why is a fan used in the engine cooling system? Explain different methods of controlling the speed of a fan. (4 Marks)
(d) State the specifications for the cooling system of any car engine. (4 Marks)
6 (a) Why is the filter used in the engine lubricating system? Describe the working of a full-flow pressure oil filter. (8 Marks)
(b) Describe how inner walls of the cylinder are lubricated in the splash system. (4 Marks)
(c) Explain the oil additives used for engine oils. (4 Marks)
(d) What are the common troubles encountered in the lubricating system of an engine? (4 Marks)
7 (a) What is ignition advance? On what factors does it depend? (4 Marks)
(b) What are the problems encounters in a high tension coil? (4 Marks)
(c) Name the different types of electrodes in spark plugs and explain their uses. (4 Marks)
(d) Describe the principle of Hall effect and how this effect is applied in the sensor of the electronic distributor. (8 Marks)
8 (a) In what way does the altitude affect the air-fuel mixture of the engine? What is the special device used in high altitude regions? Describe the device with a neat sketch. (8 Marks)
(b) Explain how a three-way catalytic converter is employed to convert polluted exhaust gases into harmless gases. (4 Marks)
(c) What is the purpose of the charcoal canister? (4 Marks)
(d) A four-cylinder diesel engine produces indicated horse power of 120 kW and delivers a brake horse power of 95 kW. Calculate the machinal efficiency and frictional horse power. (4 Marks)


Monday, 9 June 2014

Constitution of India and Professional ethics-VTU model question paper


1. The source of authority of the Indian constitution is
A) The Government B) The Supreme Court C) The People of India D) The President
2. The credit of developing the preamble of constitution goes to
A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Pandit Nehru C) B.R.Ambedkar D) Sardar Patel
3. The date of commencement of Indian constitution is
A) 26th Nov 1949 B) 26th Nov 1945 C) 15th Aug 1947 D) 26th Jan 1950
4. Universal adult franchise shows that India is a country which is
A) Secular B) Socialist C) Democratic D) Sovereign
5. Who was the chairman of drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Sardar Patel
C) Dr.Babu rajendra Prasad D) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
6. For how many years, months and days did the constituent assembly work on the framing the constitution
A) 2 years 11 months 18 days B) 4 years 12 months 20 days
C) 3 years 3 months 29 days D) 5 years 5 months 10 days
7. The preamble of the constitution reads as follows
A) We the members of Parliament B) We the people of India
C) We the members of cabinet D) We the members of Association
8. Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian constitution by the 42nd amendment?
A) Secular B) Socialist C) Integrity D) All of these
9. The constitution of India is
A) rigid B) flexible
C) partly rigid and partly flexible D) very rigid
10. Our constitution grants to the citizens __________ fundamental rights
A) Six B) Five C) Ten D) Seven
11. The fundamental rights are enshrined in
A) Chapter – I B) Chapter – II C) Chapter- III D) Chapter-IV
12. Which of the below rights is deleted from the list of fundamental rights
A) Right to equality B) Right to freedom
C) Right to life & Liberty D) Right to property
13. Directive principles of state policies are
A) Social rights B) Political rights C) Constitutional rights D) Legal rights
14. Which part of the constitution aims at establishing a welfare state in the country
A) Preamble B) Fundamental rights
C) Fundamental duties D) Directive principles of state policy
15. Upto what age Children are required to be provided compulsory education under directive principles?
A) 18 years B) 15 years C) 14 years D) 16 years
16. Fundamental duties are discussed in
A) Part III B) Part IV C) Part III(A) D) Part IV(A)
17. Who acts as the channel of communication between the president and council of ministers?
A) Prime Minister B) Deputy Prime Minister
C) Speaker of LS D) Senior most minister
18. The ground for impeachment of president is
A) Violation of the constitution B) Misbehaviour with foreign dignitaries
C) Unable to discharge duty due to ill health D) None of these
19. How is the president removed from the office?
A) No confidence motion B) order of the chief justice of India
C) Order of the chief advocate general of India D) Impeachment motion
20. Number of MPs from Karnataka is
A) 24 B) 26 C) 28 D) 29
21. Who is supposed to take oath of the newly elected president?
A) Prime Minister B) Chairman of Rajyasabha
C) Outgoing President D) Chief justice of India
22. Who will preside over the joint session of both houses of parliament?
A) President B) Prime Minister C) Speaker D) None of these
23. What is the system used to elect the President of India?
A) Direct election B) Proportional representation
C) Secret ballot D) Preferential system
24. Who appoints the chief election commissioner?
A) Prime Minister B) President C) Parliament D) AICTE
25. The council minister and prime minister should not exceed the total strength of the parliament
A) 5% B) 10% C) 12% D) 15%
26. What is the system of legislature in the state of Karnataka?
A) Bicameral B) Unicameral C) Cameral D) None
27. Who appoints the Vice-chancellors of the state universities?
A) The Prime minister B) The judge of High Court
C) The Governor D) The Chief Minister
28. An ordinance issued by Governor is subject to approval by
A) The President B) The state council of ministers
C) The state legislature D) None of these
29. How many members retire in legislative council for every two years?
A) ¼ B) 1/3 C) 1/5 D) 1/6
30. The president can proclaim emergency on the grounds of
A) War B) Armed rebellion C) External aggression D) All of these
31. Article 352 of the constitution deals with
A) State emergency B) National emergency C) Financial emergency D) None of these
32. The President can proclaim national emergency only on written advoice of
A) The Prime Minister B) The Union cabinet
C) The Chief justice of India D) The speaker of Loksabha
33. In India, the citizens have been given the right to vote on the basis of
A) age B) education
C) property qualification D) duration of stay in country
34. Promotion of SCs and STs was added to the constitution by
A) 64th amendment B) 77th amendment
C) 21st amendment D) 14th amendment
35. Minority may be
A) Regional or national B) Linguistic or religious
C) National or racial D) Racial or regional
36. According to the marriage act of 1954, the age is fixed at ____ years for men and ____ years for women
A) 21 and 18 B) 24 and 30 C) 21 and 20 D) 22 and 18
37. Breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state is popularly known as
A) National emergency B) President’s rule
C) Financial emergency D) All of these
38. Which was the lengthiest amendment to the constitution?
A) 46th B) 44th C) 42nd D) 24th
39. Abolition of untouchability under article
A) 17 B) 19 C) 21 D) 32
40. Governor addresses his resignation to
A) The Prime Minister B) The President C) Vice President D) Chief Minister
41. The greatest impediment to responsibility is
A) Rampant corruption B) Interference by politicians
C) Self interest D) Interference by higher officials
42.Conflict of interest may be
A) Actual B) Imaginary C) Produced D) True
43. Intentionally causing harm is related to
A) Legal responsibility B) Moral responsibility C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of these
44. Which of the following is not the concepts of responsibility?
A) Minimalist B) Utilitarianism C) Reasonable care D) Good works
45. This is not dishonesty in engineering
A) Trimming B) Intentionally C) Negligently D) Blending
46. Intellectual property is protected by
A) Patents, trade marks and copy rights B) Company documentation
C) Storage in computers D) Scrutiny personal
47. An Author retains copyright of his book for
A) 25 years B) 50 years C) 60 years D) 100 years
48. Which of the following is not preserved as an intellectual property?
A) Government regulations B) Copy rights C) Patents D) Trade secrets
49. Risk estimation can be done using
A) Cooking B) Trimming C) Event tree D) Both (A) and (B)
50.Risk of harm equal to probability of producing benefit is
A) Inevitable risk B) Acceptable risk C) Risk which cannot be avoided D) None of these